I just recently completed the course, working on cert materials and am having a "brain fart"
I believe biplaner (which is in the Z365 form wrist section) means the wrist is in flexion but also in deviation but need someone to clarify for me.
Am I correct??
Also curious about the <1/2 and >1/2 ROM motion and exactly what that means.
Thoughts??
Biplanar does refer to a joint positioning in more than one plane-both wrist flexion and deviation would constitute this situation. As you are probably aware, the posturing of the wrist in two planes increases pressure in the carpal tunnel, potentially resulting in, or aggrivation of, carpal tunnel syndrome.
Hello,
I just wanted to let you know that I forwarded this question on and will post reply once it's received.
Thank you for your patience and Happy Holidays!
Jenn
Dr LaCourse said:
The definition of biplanar is a plain of movement around the transverse axis (sagittal plane), and the anterior-posterior axis (frontal plane). Examples are an diarthrotic (condyloidal) joint such as the metacarpalphalageal joint.
In other words movement in two planes.
If you have any other questions, please let me know!
Jenn